What is the ruling regarding a husband having sexual intercourse with his wife before completing the expiation for his statement to her: "You are forbidden to me until the Day of Judgment," and is he sinful for that, and what must he do?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The statements of scholars indicate that prohibiting one's wife is considered dhahār, and therefore, it is not permissible for the husband to have intercourse with his wife until after performing the expiation (). Whoever intentionally has intercourse with her before the expiation has committed a sin and must repent. One expiation is sufficient for him. If the husband has intercourse with his wife after paying part of the expiation, he builds upon what he has already paid.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/60107
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 60107
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy