Does divorce occur by the husband's statement "You have whatever you want," followed by the wife's statement "I want a divorce," if the husband's intention behind "You have whatever you want" was merely to silence his wife and not to intend divorce?

The utterance of divorce belongs to the husband. If the husband states that he did not intend divorce by what he said, then no divorce has occurred, because he is the one who knows his intention. It is not permissible for a woman to seek divorce without a legitimate reason, due to the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, saying: "Any woman who asks her husband for a divorce without any compelling reason, the scent of Paradise will be forbidden to her."