Does divorce occur by the husband's statement "You have whatever you want," followed by the wife's statement "I want a divorce," if the husband's intention behind "You have whatever you want" was merely to silence his wife and not to intend divorce?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The utterance of divorce belongs to the husband. If the husband states that he did not intend divorce by what he said, then no divorce has occurred, because he is the one who knows his intention. It is not permissible for a woman to seek divorce without a legitimate reason, due to the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, saying: "Any woman who asks her husband for a divorce without any compelling reason, the scent of Paradise will be forbidden to her."
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/109249
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 109249
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy