Does a wife get divorced if her husband has given prior approval for her to request a divorce without his knowledge of what she is requesting?

According to the majority of scholars, divorce occurs either by an explicit verbal utterance or by an implicit expression accompanied by the intention (of divorce). If the husband did not intend divorce when agreeing with his wife, then it does not occur. The words of divorce are serious and should not be trifled with. It is not permissible for a woman to seek divorce without cause, for the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "Any woman who asks her husband for divorce without any strong reason, the fragrance of Paradise will be forbidden to her."