What is the sin of a person who has homosexual tendencies but has not committed indecency, and why is he described as "wicked," and are these tendencies considered a trial, and does the promise of entry into Paradise for one who guards his chastity apply to him, and is supplicating for the removal of these tendencies considered a supplication for the impossible?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
In summary: Inclination towards the same sex is not by a person's choice, but responding to it involves a person's choice. One afflicted by this should strive to repel it and take the necessary steps towards repentance. Ibn Al-Qayyim mentioned in "Ad-Daa' wa Ad-Dawaa'" (The Disease and the Cure) that everything Allah has forbidden has a cure, otherwise He would not have forbidden it. Contrary to those who claim the impossibility of overcoming it, both Islamic law and reality refute this. If the matter does not go beyond mere thoughts, then there is no accountability.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/146853
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 146853
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- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Read the full answer on Ftawy