If a man says to his wife, "Your 'ismah (right to divorce) is in your hand," and she immediately divorces herself, is it permissible for him to take her back without her consent, or is her consent required? And does his delegation and authorization to her end with the divorce, or does the 'ismah remain in her hand, allowing her to divorce herself a second time?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If the husband grants the wife the right to divorce herself ( عصمة ), and she divorces herself, then her divorce is valid. The husband may take her back ( رجعة ) before her waiting period (iddah) ends, unless this divorce completes the three divorces. Her consent or knowledge is not required for him to take her back. This delegation of the right to divorce (ismah) is severed once she divorces herself, and it does not revert to her after he takes her back. She must be stopped until she responds by acceptance or rejection.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/126975
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- 126975
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