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Is it considered a divorce if a husband sends an email to his wife—who resides in another country—stating, "I have divorced her"?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

Scholars have differed regarding the word "al-sarah" (release/setting free) as to whether it is an explicit pronouncement of divorce or a metaphorical one. The preponderant opinion is that it is metaphorical. The difference between an explicit and a metaphorical pronouncement is that an explicit pronouncement effects divorce even without intention upon utterance, whereas a metaphorical one does not effect divorce unless accompanied by intention.

However, when writing without utterance, intention is necessary, whether for an explicit or a metaphorical pronouncement. This is the correct view. So, if the husband writes the word "al-sarah" or similar words to his wife, the occurrence of divorce depends on his intention. If he intended divorce, it occurs; otherwise, it does not.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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