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The question

Is it considered a divorce if a husband sends an email to his wife—who resides in another country—stating, "I have divorced her"?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Scholars have differed regarding the word "al-sarah" (release/setting free) as to whether it is an explicit pronouncement of divorce or a metaphorical one. The preponderant opinion is that it is metaphorical. The difference between an explicit and a metaphorical pronouncement is that an explicit pronouncement effects divorce even without intention upon utterance, whereas a metaphorical one does not effect divorce unless accompanied by intention.

However, when writing without utterance, intention is necessary, whether for an explicit or a metaphorical pronouncement. This is the correct view. So, if the husband writes the word "al-sarah" or similar words to his wife, the occurrence of divorce depends on his intention. If he intended divorce, it occurs; otherwise, it does not.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
79900
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy