Does a divorce take place if a man says, "I have divorced her," without referring to his wife or uttering her name?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
A man's statement, "I have divorced her," could mean an initiation of divorce for his wife, or a report about a previous divorce, or a lie. If he intended it as an initiation of divorce for his wife, then it is effective. If he intended it as a report about a previous divorce, then there is no consequence for him. If he intended to lie, then she remains his wife in what is between him and Allah Almighty, and no divorce occurs according to the majority of scholars unless the wife refers the matter to a judge.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/111649
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 111649
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy