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The question

Would an employee in a government company that follows Western systems, which are contrary to Sharia, be sinful, and is his salary lawful?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the employee does not directly commit what is forbidden, nor assists in it, then there is no objection. Otherwise, it is not permissible, due to the generality of Allah's saying: "And cooperate in righteousness and piety, but do not cooperate in sin and aggression." An example of what is forbidden is usurious dealings, selling or drinking alcohol, or assisting in them. It does not matter if the perpetrators are disbelievers, because they are addressed by the subsidiary rulings of Islamic law, according to the preponderant opinion.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
66724
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy