Is a married woman of comfortable means entitled to a share of her wealthy father's money while he is still alive, or is this right restricted to sons only?

A married woman of comfortable means has no obligatory right to her father's wealth, because her maintenance obligation ceased for her father upon her marriage. It is permissible for a father to give a gift specifically to his male children for a legitimate reason, such as poverty, illness, or assisting a disabled person to marry. Otherwise, it is not permissible for him to prefer males over females in giving gifts, according to the preponderant opinion, due to the severing of kinship ties and the creation of animosity that this entails. Rather, he must be just by giving the male the equivalent of the share of two females. It is also said that he should equalize between them, and this is the preponderant opinion.