Is it permissible for the one who distributes zakat and his family to eat from the food prepared with it?
What the man did does not suffice for his al-mal (obligatory charity on wealth), for Zakat is the conferment of ownership to the poor. Giving out food as a value is not considered sufficient by the majority of scholars, except in the case of Zakat on food produce itself. If the wealth is in cash or trade goods, he should appraise the goods at the completion of theol (one lunar year) and add the cash to it, then disburse one-quarter of one-tenth (2.5%) in cash. Abu Hanifa and Ibn Taymiyyah permit giving the equivalent value if it is for the benefit of the poor. If the food distributed was not intended as Zakat, then there is no harm for him or his family in eating from it, and he must disburse the Zakat in cash.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/87039
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 87039
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy