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The question

Does an oath of divorce take effect when the husband stipulates the wife's marital infidelity, with the wife knowing of her innocence and invoking a curse upon herself to prove her innocence?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

As long as you are truthful in what you swear to your husband, no divorce or prohibition falls upon you. Your supplication against yourself that Allah forbid you from Paradise if you have betrayed him is an objectionable statement and not an oath; rather, it is a supplication against yourself. Your husband should fear Allah and think well of you, and not accuse you of wrongdoing without justification. It is not permissible for him to seek out your faults and demand that you confess your sins. Rather, if you have committed a sin and repented from it, you should conceal it and not inform your husband or anyone else.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
150281
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy