Is it permissible to sell tickets that were purchased with an agreement not to resell them, and is the money earned from that unlawful, especially since everyone acts in this way?
Scholars have differed on the issue of stipulating that the purchased item not be sold, holding three views: the invalidity of both the sale and the condition (the madhhab of Abu Hanifa, Malik, and Al-Shafi'i), the invalidity of the condition but not the sale (the well-known view of the Hanbalis), and the validity of both the sale and the condition (a narration within the madhhab of Ahmad chosen by Ibn Taymiyyah and Ibn Al-Qayyim).
The closest view on this issue is to elaborate: if the condition entails a benefit for the contracting party (the buyer) or for the sold item, then it is permissible and valid. However, if it is merely for the purpose of restricting the buyer, then it is not permissible. Sheikh Ibn Uthaymin supported this elaboration.
Accordingly, if the selling party has an interest in imposing this condition, then it must be fulfilled, and the buyer is not permitted to sell what he has bought or profit from its sale. Any profit obtained from such a sale is not rightfully his, so he should donate it as charity, retaining only his principal.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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