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The question

What is the ruling on someone who had sexual intercourse with his wife during the daytime in Ramadan, then divorced her afterwards for another reason; does he owe expiation?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The discussion has already covered the expiation for intercourse during a day. The fact that a man divorced his wife after having intercourse with her during a Ramadan day does not waive the expiation for him, because the sanctity of the month was violated by intercourse therein, and the expiation was legislated due to the violation of this sanctity.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
54226
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy