Are shares or their profits to be divided among the deceased's heirs if the grandfather claims ownership of them in the name of the deceased, knowing that there is no proof of that?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Profits follow shares. So, whoever owns the shares owns their profits. If the shares are registered in your father's name, they are an inheritance to be divided among all his heirs according to Islamic law. If your grandfather claims they belong to him and he registered them in your father's name for a purpose other than a gift, then he must provide legitimate proof. If he provides it, he takes the shares and profits. If he does not provide it, then they are an inheritance for your father, and the grandfather is only entitled to one-sixth of them if he is an heir.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/175160
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 175160
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy