Am I still legally his wife after repeated pronouncements of divorce in different situations, including during menstruation and via text messages? Does divorce pronounced during menstruation count? Is a divorce that takes place in a European country sufficient, even if he does not intend to complete the divorce according to Sharia? Is there a solution for me to return to him if the divorce has actually occurred?

The jurisprudential ruling (fatwa (definition)) is that the divorce of a menstruating woman or an angry man (unless his mind is completely absent) is effective. Writing explicit divorce statements in mobile messages is considered an implicit declaration, and divorce occurs if the husband intends it. After the third pronouncement, the wife becomes irrevocably divorced (bainunah kubra), and she is not permissible for her divorcing husband until she marries another man willingly, he consummates the marriage with her, and then he divorces her or dies, and her waiting period (iddah (definition)) expires. It is advisable to present the matter verbally to scholars and trustworthy individuals.