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The question

Does a divorce take effect when a husband tells his wife: "Inform her that she is divorced"?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

It appears that a man's statement to his wife's family, "Tell her she is divorced," effectuates the divorce the moment it is uttered, regardless of whether the news reaches the wife or not. This is the view held by Al-Sarakhsi, Ibn Nujaym, and Malik. Some scholars are of the opinion that if the husband intends by the word "divorced" to inform of a previous divorce, then no divorce occurs by it. However, the first opinion is stronger, and Ahmad explicitly stated that this wording is clear and effectuates divorce.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
128623
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy