Does a divorce take effect if a man tells his wife: "If you tell anyone about a certain matter, then you are divorced," and then he later gives her permission to talk about the same matter, and is expiation (kaffarah) required of him?

If the reason for conditioning divorce on informing (the husband) has ceased to exist, then the divorce does not occur, and she is permitted to inform him. However, if the conditioning of divorce on informing (the husband) was without a reason, then the matter remains as it is, and the issue becomes one of conditional divorce.