Does a divorce take effect if a man tells his wife: "If you tell anyone about a certain matter, then you are divorced," and then he later gives her permission to talk about the same matter, and is expiation (kaffarah) required of him?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the reason for conditioning divorce on informing (the husband) has ceased to exist, then the divorce does not occur, and she is permitted to inform him. However, if the conditioning of divorce on informing (the husband) was without a reason, then the matter remains as it is, and the issue becomes one of conditional divorce.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/148677
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 148677
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy