Is a divorce effected if the wife says to her husband, "You are divorced" if she disobeys him in a matter that does not involve disobedience to Allah or lies to him, and then obeys him in a matter she was forbidden from before the oath?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The husband errs by conditioning divorce on his wife's obedience, and he may regret it. If the husband intends by conditioning divorce to frighten and threaten his wife, then he must offer expiation for breaking an oath (kaffarat ), and the divorce does not occur. However, if he intends to bring about the divorce, then it occurs when the wife performs the act upon which the divorce was conditioned. As for divorce occurring based on a past act of disobedience, it depends on the husband's intention: if he intended all past and future commands, then it occurs; but if he intended only future commands, then it does not occur.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/11443
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 11443
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy