What is the ruling on a man who does not own goods taking perfume bottles from a merchant at a specific price, then selling them at a higher price, paying the merchant the price of what he sold, and taking the difference?
This transaction has two forms:
The First: That he buys bottles of perfume on credit from the merchant, then sells them at a higher price and pays the merchant later. This is permissible, provided that he takes possession of the goods and removes them from the merchant's premises before selling them, based on the : "He forbade that goods be sold where they are bought until the merchants take them to their dwellings."
The Second: That the man acts as an agent for the merchant, marketing his goods, with the understanding that any excess over the specified price belongs to him. This form is permissible and does not require ownership or possession of the goods before selling them, because he is merely an agent. If it is not agreed that the excess belongs to him, then the excess belongs to the merchant, and the agent receives his wage or the agreed-upon percentage.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 17755
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy