What is the ruling on a divorce that occurred in writing with the words "Divorced, divorced, divorced," coinciding with the wife's menstrual period? Is it considered a final, irrevocable divorce by three pronouncements, or a single pronouncement, or does the divorce not take place at all, especially given that it was not officially documented and both spouses desire to reconcile?

Divorce by writing takes effect if the husband intends it, and it is considered a kinayah (allusion). As for verbal divorce, it takes effect without the need for intention and is considered an explicit (sarih) declaration. The number of divorces depends on the husband's intention: if he intended each utterance as an independent divorce, then three divorces occur. If he intended emphasis, then only one divorce occurs. The documentation of divorce in courts has no bearing on whether it has taken place or not.