Does divorce take place if a husband makes his wife's divorce conditional upon her doing something, and then the wife does it after intending not to do it?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
A divorce conditioned upon a stipulation does not occur unless the stipulation is met. So, if a husband conditions divorce on his wife not bringing something, and she brings it, the divorce does not occur. However, if the husband's intention or the reason for conditioning the divorce was the failure to bring it at the specified time or with the required specifications, and this is not met, then the stipulation is considered to have occurred, and the divorce takes place. For intention and reason affect an oath, both in specification and generalization.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/69516
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 69516
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy