Is it permissible for the seller to stipulate that the buyer not demand the remaining rent amount from the tenant, which the seller had already collected in advance, and is that considered deceit?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Leasing is a binding contract, in which the lessor owns the price and the lessee owns the usufruct. It is not invalidated by the sale of the leased asset if the purchaser is aware of the lease. The lessee who purchases the leased asset becomes the owner of both the usufruct and the property, and there is no contradiction in this. The new purchaser does not have the right to demand rent for the remaining period, and the sale is valid. If the purchaser is unaware of the existence of the lease, then he has the option to annul the sale.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/90623
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 90623
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy