What is the ruling on someone who made his wife's divorce conditional by saying: "If you sleep with someone else without your consent, then you are divorced, divorced, divorced," and is this considered a divorce if he intended to revoke the divorce of his other wife?

The man who conditioned his wife's divorce on him sleeping with another woman without her consent, divorce occurs, according to the majority of scholars, if he does that. Some scholars, like Ibn Taymiyyah, hold the view that an expiation for a broken oath (kaffarat yamin) is required if he did not intend divorce. According to the preponderant opinion, if the conditioned act occurs (his sleeping with his other wife or another woman without the first wife's consent), then a single divorce occurs if he intended that, and if he intended three divorces, she becomes unlawful for him until she marries another husband in a marriage of desire and he divorces her after consummation.