Does divorce occur if a wife strikes her husband—as a result of her psychological illness—after the husband had told himself divorce would occur if the striking recurred? And does divorce occur if a wife strikes her husband—as a result of her psychological illness—after the husband asked her to strike him and told himself divorce would occur if she struck him, and then she struck him after a period of time?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
These are only whispers (waswas), and divorce does not occur by them. One must turn away from these whispers and present oneself and his wife to mental health specialists. Striking the face is impermissible.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 137271
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