Is it permissible to combine two or more schools of thought when there is a need, especially in matters of marriage and divorce, such as having the marriage conform to the Madhhab of Abu Hanifa and the divorce to the Madhhab of Ibn Taymiyyah, due to the preponderance of his evidence regarding the non-occurrence of bid'i divorce (innovated divorce) in the case of the two spouses?
There is no harm in acting upon what one's soul feels at ease with from the sayings of trustworthy scholars, without whims or seeking out concessions. There is also no objection to combining more than one madhhab in various issues, even if they are within the same chapter.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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