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The question

When is a woman considered to have had a single divorce? Is it after the waiting period (iddah) has passed, or as soon as she leaves the house?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a man utters an immediate divorce, his wife is divorced immediately with one pronouncement or according to the number mentioned in his utterance. If the divorce is conditional or he swore by divorce, it takes effect upon the occurrence of the condition he made it dependent on. In all these cases, the occurrence of divorce does not require the completion of the waiting period () or leaving the house.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
48103
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy