What is the ruling on changing swear words—whether a person is accustomed to them or not—to words that resemble them in pronunciation, with a difference of one or two letters, intending to express anger without incurring sin?
If a person's words imply cursing and insults, then it is considered as if they have explicitly stated them.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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