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The question

Does one who swore by divorce not to speak to his wife on the phone for a month, then spoke to her on the same day, break his oath?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If by your statement: "By my oath" you intended the obligation of an expiatory offering for an oath (kaffarat ) should you speak to your wife before a month has passed and you break your oath, then an expiatory offering for an oath is obligatory upon you according to the majority of scholars. The Shafi'is, however, are of the view that nothing is obligatory upon you. But if you intended by it the occurrence of divorce, then nothing is obligatory upon you; because divorce does not occur except with an explicit لفظ صريح (pronouncement) or a kinayah (allusion) accompanied by intention.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
101902
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy