Is it permissible to refuse to eat food prepared in the aunt's home, knowing that the means of its preparation (such as the stove, electricity, and gas) are from previously unlawful money, even if the food itself was purchased with lawful money by the visitor? And is this refusal considered making things difficult for oneself, or is it an act of piety to refrain from eating unlawful things?

If it is known that the origin of the food is permissible (halal) but it was cooked using a usurped or stolen means, then eating it is not forbidden, by analogy with water heated with usurped means. However, if it is not confirmed that the means used were from unlawful money, for example, if the family's money is a mixture of lawful and unlawful, then eating the food is not forbidden; rather, it is considered disliked (makruh) by many scholars, and some have permitted it without any dislike. The money acquired from unlawful sources should be spent on good causes, such as the poor and for the benefit of Muslims.