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The question

Is it permissible for a man to perform ablution or bathe with water that a woman has exclusively used in her room?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The relied-upon position in the Hanbali school is that a man does not purify himself with the leftover water ( فضْل ماء) from a woman's ritual purification (ṭahārah) if it was for an obligatory purification. They cite narrations from the Companions, such as Abdullah ibn Sarjis, and their understanding of the prohibiting ablution with the leftover water from a woman's purification.

As for the majority of scholars ( الجمهور), they permit this, and this is the preferred and relied-upon view of Sheikh Ibn 'Uthaymin. He bases his argument on the hadith: "Water does not become impure (lā yujnib)," referring to an incident where one of the Prophet's wives (peace be upon him) performed from a large bowl (jafnah), and then the Prophet (peace be upon him) performed ghusl from the same water.

Interpreting the prohibition as one of discouragement (tanzīh) is more appropriate. Therefore, the correct view is that a man's purification is valid with water that a woman has used for purification. This is also the choice of Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah.

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Original fatwa ID
98840
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