Is a divorce considered to have occurred when the questioner intended to take his wife back, relying on the fatwa of an ignorant person that his wife had been divorced, or is that not counted as a divorce since she was not divorced in the first place?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
As long as you have not broken your oath, no expiation is binding upon you, and no divorce has occurred to your wife by intention of revoking it. We advise you to avoid swearing by saying something is '' (unlawful), for the only legitimate oath is by Allah, the Mighty and Majestic, as the Messenger of Allah, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "Whoever swears an oath, let him swear by Allah or keep silent."
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/126380
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 126380
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy