Is the word "tet'all'i" (Egyptian colloquial), which means the husband divorces his wife, considered an explicit authorization for the wife to divorce herself, or is it not among the words used in delegating divorce?

The phrase mentioned, "divorce yourself," is explicit in divorce. There is no difference between it and [the saying] "divorce is not in the hands of the woman," for the one who truly divorces is the husband. If the husband delegates the power of divorce to the woman with this صيغة (formula/wording), then his intention is not needed due to its explicitness.