Is the statement mentioned in "Fatawa al-Hindiyyah" regarding a woman delegating to herself the right to divorce herself, correct or incorrect?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Jurists agree on the permissibility of a man delegating divorce to his wife, which is done through explicit or allusive words of delegation. Explicit words are those that use the word "divorce," while allusive words are those that do not and require intention. If the husband intends by saying "yes" to delegate the divorce and the wife divorces herself, one divorce occurs. These matters are subject to (independent reasoning), and one must act according to what they deem most probable.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/149864
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 149864
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy