The question is about divorce using the word "divorced" (مطلقة) without a pronoun. Does divorce occur merely by saying "divorced" without adding a pronoun like "you" (أنتِ) or "she" (هي), and is it a condition to mention the wife's name when she is absent?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
All praise is due to Allah. For a divorce to occur, the pronouncement must be attributed to the wife, either explicitly or implicitly. It is not a condition for the wife to be present, or for her to be addressed verbally, or for her name to be mentioned. So, if he says, "You are divorced," or "She is divorced," or "So-and-so is divorced," and he intends his wife, then the divorce occurs.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/116458
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 116458
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy