Does a divorce take place if a man says to his wife, "You are divorced; [you are] divorced"?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The question is unclear. If the phrasing is "I divorced" (طلقت) or "divorced" (طالق) without attributing the divorce to the wife or referring to her, then it appears to be a form of كناية (allusion/implication) and not an explicit declaration.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/127914
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 127914
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy