Back to search

Does a divorce take place if a man says to his wife, "You are divorced; [you are] divorced"?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The question is unclear. If the phrasing is "I divorced" (طلقت) or "divorced" (طالق) without attributing the divorce to the wife or referring to her, then it appears to be a form of كناية (allusion/implication) and not an explicit declaration.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

Read the full answer on Ftawy