Does a divorce take place if a man says to his wife, "You are divorced; [you are] divorced"?
The question is unclear. If the phrasing is "I divorced" (طلقت) or "divorced" (طالق) without attributing the divorce to the wife or referring to her, then it appears to be a form of كناية (allusion/implication) and not an explicit declaration.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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