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The question

Is an 'Umrah intended in late Sha’ban and performed in Ramadan, due to the performer not having received news of the start of Ramadan, considered an 'Umrah of Sha’ban or of Ramadan?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a man enters into for on the first night of , unaware of the crescent moon's sighting, he is hoped to receive the reward for an Umrah performed in Ramadan, because it occurred within it. However, if he entered ihram for it in Sha'ban and completed it in Ramadan, it appears he does not attain the reward of an Umrah performed in Ramadan, because he began it before the advent of Ramadan.

Sheikh Al-Uthaymeen, may Allah have mercy on him, stated that for an Umrah to be considered Ramadan Umrah, both its ihram and completion must occur within Ramadan. So, if one enters ihram for it before Ramadan or completes it after Ramadan, it is not considered a Ramadan Umrah.

Some scholars, such as Sheikh Muhammad Al-Mukhtar Al-Shinqiti, hold the view that if one begins the after sunset on the last day of Sha'ban (i.e., on the first night of Ramadan), it is considered a Ramadan Umrah, because its greatest pillar, the tawaf, occurred within Ramadan.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
110783
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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