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The question

Why is the permissible considered one of the Shar'i rulings, even though it does not involve a demand for action or abstention?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Scholars have differed regarding the inclusion of the permissible () in the Shar'i rulings (Ahkam Taklifiyyah). The majority of scholars hold that it is not included, contrary to Abu Ishaq al-Isfara'ini. The difference is semantic; for the dissenter believes that Taklif (imposition of religious duties) entails hardship and a demand, and there is neither a demand nor hardship in the permissible. Whereas, those who affirmed its inclusion, did so based on the belief that it is permissible.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
193278
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy