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Why is the permissible considered one of the Shar'i rulings, even though it does not involve a demand for action or abstention?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

Scholars have differed regarding the inclusion of the permissible (Mubah) in the Shar'i rulings (Ahkam Taklifiyyah). The majority of scholars hold that it is not included, contrary to Abu Ishaq al-Isfara'ini. The difference is semantic; for the dissenter believes that Taklif (imposition of religious duties) entails hardship and a demand, and there is neither a demand nor hardship in the permissible. Whereas, those who affirmed its inclusion, did so based on the belief that it is permissible.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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