Is a wife divorced by her husband's statement to her, "If you do not do such-and-such, then go to your family," knowing that she did not hear him, and this applies in cases of intention to divorce, or lack thereof, or hesitation?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the husband did not intend divorce, or was hesitant, then his divorce does not take effect due to the statement not being explicit and requiring intention. However, if he intended it and meant it, then the divorce takes effect if the wife does not do what the divorce was conditioned upon, even if she did not hear him, because what matters is what was issued by the husband.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/91645
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 91645
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy