Does divorce occur by saying, "I make you forbidden to me," with the intention of annoying the wife while angry, and does the wife remain lawful to the husband thereafter?

Prohibiting one's wife constitutes a divorce if the speaker intended divorce, a ẓihār if he intended ẓihār, and an oath if he intended an oath or to urge an action or its abstention. If the intention was merely to provoke the wife, then it is not considered a divorce or a ẓihār, but an expiation for breaking an oath is required: feeding ten poor people or clothing them. If one cannot find them, then fasting for three days. However, if the intention was divorce, then it is a divorce, even if spoken in anger, as long as the anger did not lead to a loss of senses.