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The question

Is obtaining a portion of the profit from goods not recorded in the ledgers, with the aim of compensating for an inadequate wage, considered theft?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

"One must adhere to the agreement concluded between the worker and the employer. It is not permissible for the worker to take any amount exceeding their agreed-upon wage without the employer's permission; otherwise, it would be considered consuming people's wealth unlawfully. This is based on the principle that 'Muslims are bound by their conditions,' and the Quranic prohibition against consuming people's wealth unjustly, as well as the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, saying: 'The wealth of a Muslim is not lawful except with his good consent.'

Therefore, dissatisfaction with the wage does not justify taking money without the owner's knowledge, as the worker is a trusted agent. The worker must repent and return what was taken unjustly. If the exact amount cannot be determined, or if the owner does not legitimize it, then the amount that is most likely to clear one's conscience must be returned. It is not a condition to inform the employer about this; rather, returning it by any possible means is sufficient. If the worker feels unjustly treated, they can request the termination of the current contract and the conclusion of a new one."

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
104918
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy