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The question

How many expiations are required for someone who swore to himself that he would not practice masturbation for a certain period, then did so before the period ended, and repeated that in the same manner?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If someone swears not to do something and then does it, they have broken their oath (hanith) and atonement () becomes obligatory upon them. If they perform the atonement, and then swear again and do the same thing, another atonement is due upon them, by scholarly consensus. However, if they break their oath but do not perform atonement, and then swear again and break that oath as well, then according to the majority of scholars, two atonements are due, whereas the Hanbalis hold that only one atonement is due. And if someone swears not to do something and does not break their oath, then swears a second time and then breaks that oath, the preponderant opinion is that only one atonement is due. This is the view of the majority, in contrast to the Hanafis, who say that an atonement is due for each oath, and some Malikis and Shafi'is, who differentiate between intending emphasis and intending a new, separate oath.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
36063
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy