Does a wife become unlawful to her husband if he pronounced the oath of divorce upon her three separate times, with him claiming the first time that he was communicating with jinn and was told, "Divorce her, get out of her," and the second time he claimed not to remember it, and the third time he was in full possession of his mental faculties, and are these pronouncements counted if it is later proven that he was bewitched?
If a husband and wife disagree about a divorce, the husband's word is to be accepted as long as he denies its occurrence. The husband's statement "divorce her" is an imperative form that does not result in the occurrence of divorce.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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