What should a husband do if he utters allusions to divorce in a fit of anger and does not remember his intention later? And is he obligated to recall the intention, or should he act upon the principle of the divorce not having occurred, or upon the predominant assumption, or upon the divorce having occurred?

Divorce does not occur through ambiguous phrases without intention. Doubt concerning the intention of divorce is not given any weight, because the default is the continuation of the marriage. Al-Majd Ibn Taymiyyah said: "If there is doubt about divorce or its condition, it is built upon the certainty of the marriage." Therefore, turn away from these whispers and do not pay any attention to them.