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Is a husband’s leaving of his wife on the first two occasions considered a divorce, especially when he did not utter it or allude to it, and given that a message later arrived from him containing conditions for reconciliation and a threat of divorce, and have the three divorces actually taken place?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

Divorce does not occur by intention alone, for the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "Indeed, Allah has forgiven my nation for whatever crosses their minds, as long as they do not act upon it or speak of it." Divorce occurs through speech or writing. Therefore, what happened by way of intention or threat of divorce is not considered a divorce.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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