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The question

Will the wife be sinful by remaining with her husband if he uttered a phrase of divorce with the intention of deterrence, and then the jurists (Ahl al-Ifta') issued a fatwa that it did not take effect, despite her doubt in his sincerity, and will she be rewarded for obeying him and for her acts of worship in his home, knowing that he had divorced her twice before?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Scholars have differed regarding the ruling on divorce conditioned upon a stipulation. The majority of them hold that it occurs upon the fulfillment of the condition, whether the husband intended divorce or merely a threat.

However, Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah is of the view that swearing an oath of divorce with the intention of emphasis does not bring about divorce upon breaking the oath; rather, an expiation for an oath (kaffarat yamin) becomes obligatory.

Whoever consults trustworthy scholars and they issue a fatwa based on the opinion of some scholars, there is no blame upon them for acting upon their fatwa. If the husband claims that he intended a threat or did not intend divorce by an ambiguous (kinayah) utterance, then his word is to be accepted, for he knows his own intention best. There is no blame upon you for remaining with him and living with him in kindness.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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