Which takes precedence: the contract texts agreed upon in the hourly wage system, or the labor law that employees rely on in their demands for overtime pay for work on holidays and not deducting sick days? And is the employees' recourse to the law considered deceit after their initial agreement to the contract terms?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
What is considered valid is the text of the contract that was agreed upon and ratified, and it is what specifies and restricts the labor law. Thus, custom is not considered when there is an explicit statement to the contrary. The text of the contract stipulates that the worker is entitled only to the wages for the hours he has worked, and therefore he is not entitled to anything else. The worker's reliance on labor law in this case is an engagement in falsehood and an attempt to unlawfully seize people's money.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/126347
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 126347
- Imported
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- Source text, unreviewed
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