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The question

Is it permissible for a man married to two women, who has high sexual desire, to go to one of them during the day on a night that is not hers? Is it considered unjust to have intercourse with both wives on the same day? What is the ruling on delaying or not performing the division (of nights) during the day?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A man may have sexual intercourse with all his wives in one night, provided that the wife whose night it is consents. The basis for the division [of nights] is the night, and the day follows it. It is not permissible to enter the house of a wife whose night it is not during the day, except out of necessity. As for sexual intercourse, it is not permissible except with the permission of the wife whose night it is. If he delays [visiting] the wife whose turn it is on her night, and this delay occurs at the beginning of the night, then he does not have to make it up to her because that is a usual time for people to go out. However, if it occurs at an unusual time, then he must make it up to her, because the right of a human being is not forfeited by an excuse.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
138545
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy