Does a righteous intention invalidate a corrupt act, and does a corrupt intention rectify a righteous act?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
A good intention does not rectify a corrupt act, but it elevates a permissible act to the level of an act of worship and obedience, as is the case when a man approaches his wife with a good intention. As for a corrupt intention, it invalidates a good deed. An example of this is a man fighting out of ostentation and bravery, and not so that the word of Allah may be supreme.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/40383
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 40383
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy