Is it permissible for a man to divorce his Christian wife, who has not converted after four years, and does not adhere to her clothing and household matters, in order for him to marry a Muslim woman, especially given the concern of his family and his desire to protect his son from his first wife?
Divorce is originally permissible when there is a need for it, and it is a mercy for both spouses. If a man divorces his wife, he is not oppressing her, and the absence of her family in his country does not prevent him from exercising this right. If his parents ask him to divorce her, he must obey them if there is a legitimate reason, because obeying parents in divorcing one's wife is obligatory when there is a legitimate reason. A Muslim's marriage to a Christian woman is fraught with risks, and the parents' request for her divorce due to these risks is considered a strong legitimate reason.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/112810