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The question

Is it permissible for a man to divorce his Christian wife, who has not converted after four years, and does not adhere to her clothing and household matters, in order for him to marry a Muslim woman, especially given the concern of his family and his desire to protect his son from his first wife?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Divorce is originally permissible when there is a need for it, and it is a mercy for both spouses. If a man divorces his wife, he is not oppressing her, and the absence of her family in his country does not prevent him from exercising this right. If his parents ask him to divorce her, he must obey them if there is a legitimate reason, because obeying parents in divorcing one's wife is obligatory when there is a legitimate reason. A Muslim's marriage to a Christian woman is fraught with risks, and the parents' request for her divorce due to these risks is considered a strong legitimate reason.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
112810
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy