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The question

If a wife who is observing a supererogatory fast fondles her husband who is not fasting, and he ejaculates, does her fast become invalid?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A woman's fasting is not related to her husband's ejaculation; rather, her fast is valid as long as nothing invalidating it comes out of her. If semen is discharged from her due to foreplay, her fast is invalidated by scholarly consensus. However, if pre-seminal fluid (madhiy) is discharged, her fast remains valid according to the most preponderant opinion.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
109925
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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